ass2: Process feedback from Roos on draft

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ass2-landau-theory-T.pdf Executable file

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@ -57,21 +57,19 @@ This point we call $F_0(T)$ with order parameter $\psi_0(T)$.
For this, we will take the derivative of $F$ with respect to $\psi$ and equate it to zero.
\[
0 = \pfrac{\mathcal{F}}{\psi} = \pfrac{}{\psi} \left[ a(T-T_c)\psi^2 \right] = 2a(T-T_c)\psi + 2\beta\psi^3
0 = \pfrac{\mathcal{F}}{\psi} = \pfrac{}{\psi} \left[ a(T-T_c)\psi^2 + \frac{\beta}{2}\psi^4 \right] = 2a(T-T_c)\psi + 2\beta\psi^3
\]
Extreme points are found at $\psi = 0$ and $\psi = \pm\sqrt{\frac{-a}{\beta}(T-T_c)}$.
For $T \geq T_c$, $\psi_0(T \geq T_c) = 0$ gives the minimum, i.e. $\mathcal{F}_0(T \geq T_c) = 0$.
For $T \leq T_c$, $\psi_0(T \leq T_c) = \sqrt{\frac{-a}{\beta}(T-T_c)}$ is the minimum,
For $T \leq T_c$, $\psi_0(T \leq T_c) = \pm\sqrt{\frac{-a}{\beta}(T-T_c)}$ is the minimum,
giving free energy
\[
\mathcal{F}_0(T \leq T_c) = \frac{-a^2}{\beta}(T-T_c)^2 + \frac{a^2}{2\beta}(T-T_c)^2 = \frac{-a^2}{2\beta}(T-T_c)^2 \leq \mathcal{F}_0(T \geq T_c)
\mathcal{F}_0(T \leq T_c) = \frac{-a^2}{\beta}(T-T_c)^2 + \frac{a^2}{2\beta}(T-T_c)^2 = \frac{-a^2}{2\beta}(T-T_c)^2 \leq \mathcal{F}_0(T \geq T_c).
\]
where we chose the positive of the $\pm$ as the order parameter is understood to increase from finite at the phase transition.
\todo{Is this a reasonable statement? It actually does not really matter that much as mostly $\psi^2$ is used, but the physical meaning is totally different. It implies some kind of symmetry, too. It seems that also \cite{abrikosov} mentions this.}
For the specific heat, we find
\[
C(T) = -T\pfrac{^2\mathcal{F}}{T^2} =
@ -81,13 +79,20 @@ For the specific heat, we find
\end{cases}.
\]
There is thus a discontinuity in $C(T)$ at $T = T_c$ with size $\Delta C(T) = \frac{a^2}{\beta}T_c$.
See the following sketches of the $T$-dependence of the derived quantities.
\begin{figure}[H]
\centering
\includegraphics[width=.9\textwidth]{ass2-landau-theory-T.pdf}
\caption{For the Landau theory, we find the drawn temperature dependences for equilibrium values of $\mathcal{F}_0$, $\psi_0$ and $C$. Note the minus sign for the free energy $\mathcal{F}_0$. At $T = 0$, there are $y$ axis intersections for all three quantities, namely a minimum $\mathcal{F}_0(0) = \frac{-a^2}{2\beta}T_c^2$, $\psi_0(0) = \pm\sqrt{\frac{-a}{b}T_c}$, and $C(0) = 0$, which I forgot to indicate in the sketches. Do also note that there thus is an intersection in the $\mathcal{F}_0(T)$ curve at $T = 0$, although the drawing may look asymptotic.}
\end{figure}
\section{Type-I superconducting foil}
\begin{enumerate}
\item
The screening equation is given as
\[
\nabla^2\vec{B} = \frac{\vec{B}}{\lambda}.
\nabla^2\vec{B} = \frac{\vec{B}}{\lambda^2}.
\]
For easy of calculation, we will use cartesian coordinates,
and put the external magnetic field $B_E$ along the $x$ axis:
@ -98,17 +103,15 @@ So we define the magnitude of the field $|\vec{B}| = B(z)$.
Using the screening equation, we look for a solution.
\[
\nabla^2\vec{B} = \nabla(\nabla\cdot\vec{B}) - \nabla\times(\nabla\times\vec{B})
\nabla^2\vec{B} = \left[ \pfrac{^2}{x^2} + \pfrac{^2}{y^2} + \pfrac{^2}{z^2} \right] \vec{B}
\]
$\vec{B}$ is divergenceless, so we are left with the latter term.
Next, we take the curls writing $B_i$ for the $i$th component of $\vec{B}$,
and realize that we only have $z$ dependence, and $B_y = 0 = B_z$.
we realize that we only have $z$ dependence, and $B_y = 0 = B_z$.
\[
-\nabla\times(\nabla\times\vec{B}) = -\nabla\times(\pfrac{B_x}{z} \hat{y}) = -(-\pfrac{^2B_x}{z^2} \hat{x})
\nabla^2\vec{B} = \pfrac{^2B_x}{z^2} \hat{x}
\]
Rewriting yields
\[
\vec{B} = \lambda \pfrac{^2B_x}{z^2}\hat{x}.
\vec{B} = \lambda^2 \pfrac{^2B_x}{z^2}\hat{x}.
\]
For this we know the general solution:
\[
@ -158,12 +161,16 @@ Next, we can equate the previously found supercurrent for our foil to the Ginzbu
\[
\vec{A} = \frac{-B_E m \sinh{\frac{z}{\lambda}}}{4\lambda\mu_0 e^2 n_s \cosh{\frac{a}{2\lambda}}} \hat{y}
\]
This we can rewrite using $\lambda = \sqrt{\frac{m}{\mu_0 n_s e^2}}$ for the London penetration depth as
\[
\vec{A} = \frac{-B_E \lambda \sinh{\frac{z}{\lambda}}}{4 \cosh{\frac{a}{2\lambda}}} \hat{y}.
\]
\item
\[
\nabla \cdot \vec{A} = \pfrac{A_x}{x} + \pfrac{A_y}{y} + \pfrac{A_z}{z} = \pfrac{0}{x} + \pfrac{A_y}{y} + \pfrac{0}{z} = 0,
\]
as $A_y \perp \hat{y}$, giving zero partial derivative.
as $A_y$ is independent of $y$.
In our case, indeed the rigid gauge choice gives the criterium for the London gauge ($\nabla \cdot \vec{A} = 0$).
@ -181,11 +188,12 @@ and take the divergence,
\frac{2e}{\hbar}\nabla \cdot \vec{A} = -\frac{m}{2e\hbar n_s} \nabla \cdot \vec{J_s} - \Delta\theta = 0
\implies \Delta\theta = -\frac{m}{2e\hbar n_s} \nabla \cdot \vec{J_s}.
\]
This is what only the London gauge implies.
But when is then the rigid gauge applied by this?
This is the case for $\nabla \cdot \vec{J_s}$, or, in words, when there is no conservation of supercurrent.
If this is not the case (if the divergence is non-zero), there is conversion between normal current and supercurrent.
This result seems to Waldram's conclusion in \cite[p. 24--26]{waldram}.
This is what the London gauge implies.
Now the question is under what circumstances the rigid gauge follows from the London gauge.
This is the case for $\nabla \cdot \vec{J_s} = 0$, or in words, when there is conservation of superelectrons.
If this is not the case (if the divergence is non-zero), there is conversion between normal electrons and superelectrons.
This would take place if the temperature is lowered, as more superelectrons allow for a larger supercurrent, thus a larger critical magnetic field.
This result seems to agree with Waldram's conclusion in \cite[p. 24--26]{waldram}.
\item
We apply a gauge transformation as follows.
@ -195,7 +203,6 @@ We apply a gauge transformation as follows.
\phi &\to \phi - \pfrac{\chi}{t} = \phi + \frac{\hbar}{2e} \omega
\end{align}
\todo{Do I really need to put in the previously found $\vec{A}$?}
\end{enumerate}
\section{Type II superconductors and the vortex lattice}
@ -209,10 +216,10 @@ Superconductors are characterized by perfect diamagnetism and zero resistance.
Perfect diamagnetism is the ability by superconductors to have a net zero magnetic field inside.
If you apply an external magnetic field, this thus means that a superconductor will let a current flow on its inside to generate a field to counteract this external field $\vec{H}$.
This generated current is called a supercurrent.
This is, however, a phase of the material.
Superconductivity is, however, a phase of the material.
Superconductors only have these properties below a certain temperature, its critical temperature $T_c$, and can only expel a maximum external magnetic field, its critical magnetic field $B_c(T)$, which is a function of the temperature.
The class of superconductors we have a model for, is the class of conventional superconductors, which are explained by a theory called BCS (and some extensions).
The class of superconductors we have a model for, is the class of conventional superconductors.
In this class, there are two types, called type-I and type-II superconductors.
% End copy from philosophy
@ -225,7 +232,9 @@ This state is reached for $T < T_c$ and $B_E < B_{c1}(T)$.
The other state is a mixed state that allows some flux to pass through the material.
This passing through is done by creating normally conducting channels throughout the material where a fixed amount of flux can pass through.
This fixed amount is a multiple of the flux quantum $\Phi_0$.
The material generates current around these channels cancelling the field on the inside of the superconducting part of the material.
The material generates current around these channels in accordance to the Maxwell-Amp\`ere law, conforming to the let through magnetic field inside the vortex and cancelling the field on the outside the vortex.
---
@ -244,7 +253,11 @@ In the mixed or vortex state, superconductors let through a number of finite flu
Some small regions of the material are not superconducting, but in the normal state.
Flux passes through these regions in multiples of $\Phi_0$, but usually just one $\Phi_0$ per region,
and a supercurrent is generated to expel the field from the rest of the material.
This supercurrent moves around these region in a vortex-like shape.
These flux allowing regions are called vortices, due to their shape and direction of current flow.
Vortices look like channels (or tubes), and supercurrents move around these channels in a spiraling fashion.
One can visualize this as current through a coil such that on the inside of the coil, the field is in one direction perpendicular to it, and on the outside it is the opposite direction.
The current direction is governed by the Maxwell-Amp\`ere equation.
In this case, the current is such that the field inside the cylinder but outside these channels is counteracted.
Please see the figure below for a beautiful drawing.
It was not specified what the direction of $\vec{B_E}$ was with respect to the cylinder orientation, so I chose what I thought was most reasonable as an example.
@ -252,7 +265,7 @@ It was not specified what the direction of $\vec{B_E}$ was with respect to the c
\begin{figure}
\centering
\includegraphics[width=.6\textwidth]{SchermafbeeldingKees-vortex-by-fleur-ahlers.png}
\caption{The direction of $\vec{J_s}$ is such that a magnetic field is generated to counteract and even expel the external field. Around the vortices, that menas that the supercurrents run anti-clockwise. Around the outside border of the cylinder, however, $\vec{J_s}$ runs clockwise to cancel $\vec{B_E}$.}
\caption{The direction of $\vec{J_s}$ is such that a magnetic field is generated to counteract and even expel the external field outside the vortices inside the material. Around the vortices, that means that the supercurrents run anti-clockwise. The field is then along $\vec{B_E}$ inside the vortices, but along $-\vec{B_E}$ outside the vortices but inside the material. Around the outside border of the cylinder, however, $\vec{J_s}$ runs clockwise and again cancels $\vec{B_E}$ on the inside of the material.}
\end{figure}
\bibliographystyle{vancouver}